3 Comments to “The Basics: What is the Gospel? Part 3 – The Application”

  1. Terry Rayburn

    Jan 5th, 2010

    Les,

    You wrote, “He [Jesus] earned a status that no man can earn on His own, ‘righteous’.”

    1. Although it is commonly taught that Jesus “earned” or “attained” His righteousness, which was subsequently given to us, this is a thought which has been handed down through tradition and creeds like the Westminster Confession, not from Scripture.

    Jesus as God was always righteous.

    And as a man, He was born righteous (think that through — could one dare to even imply that the man Christ Jesus was born UN-righteous?!).

    He was always and eternally righteous, as God and man, and it’s this ETERNAL righteousness which was imputed to us, or given to us as a gift.

    2. It’s true, of course, that He lived a perfectly obedient life, but this didn’t EARN His righteousness, it only DEMONSTRATED His righteousness.

    In this sense He is the perfect anti-type (fulfillment of a “type”) for the sacrifice lamb of the Old Covenant. The lamb had to be “without blemish”. It didn’t EARN its “blemish-less-ness”, it was always “without blemish”.

    3. Although the Westminster authors (and most modern-day folks who teach “active obedience imputation”) meant well, they actually are subtly dishonoring the Lord by implying that He needed to “earn” righteousness.

    4. The Scripture could hardly be clearer than when it says “one act” in Rom. 5:18…

    “So then as through ONE transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through ONE ACT of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men.”

    It wasn’t His whole life of obedience (so-called “active obedience”), but the ONE ACT of obedience on the cross (so-called “passive obedience”) which allowed Him to impute His righteousness to us, by taking our unrighteous sins on Himself.

    And that righteousness which He imputed to us, was always His.

    Blessings,
    Terry

  2. Les

    Jan 5th, 2010

    Very interesting.

    Just a bit of defense on my part: Of course I believe Christ was righteous before the incarnation. I guess I understand his active obedience in life to earn a legal status as it applies to the life of a man. where we are guilty, He is innocent. The life we must live to be counted righteous, He has lived for us. So now I can look at the law as completed vicariously. This removes the yoke from and I rejoice and trust in Him.

    Thanks for bringing this up. Now I need to go be a Barean.

  3. Terry Rayburn

    Jan 6th, 2010

    Les,

    I appreciate your last comment, but let me ask you something…

    You said, “Of course I believe Christ was righteous before the incarnation.”

    What about AFTER the incarnation?

    At any given point one is either righteous or unrighteous.

    Righteousness, like pregnancy [how's that for a timely comparison? :) ], is a “state” that is either there or not.

    So, was there any point AFTER the incarnation that Jesus was UN-righteous? If the answer is “no”, then He must have been righteous from birth.

    That is what the Scriptures teach, and if it’s true that He was inherently righteous, then that inherent righteousness is what was imputed to us.

    His active obedience certainly DEMONSTRATED His righteousness, but it was not the CAUSE of His righteousness (just the opposite is true).

    And so the idea that His active obedience was imputed to us is strictly a man-made idea, albeit a well-entrenched one.

    I personally believe it’s also dishonoring to the Lord, because it implies that He had to “attain” righteousness, and implies that His death on the cross was not enough to satisfy the demands of the Law.

    More important than my surmising is the simple fact that the Scriptures never say that His active obedience was imputed to us.

    And virtually no one would come up with such a theory simply by studying the Bible.

    It, like many traditions, is merely passed on from person to person.

    True, Jesus said when He was offering Himself for baptism by John, that He must “fulfill all righteousness” (one of the flimsiest but most commonly used verses for active obedience imputation).

    But that exactly DOESN”T mean that He must EARN it!

    The normal plain meaning is that He was righteous already, and must “fulfill” or “carry out” that inherent righteousness by obeying the Father in being baptized by John (thereby identifying Himself with the repentant ones).

    I posted a mini-catechism on the subject at Grace For Life that you might find helpful:

    http://www.graceforlife.com/2010/01/eternal-inherent-righteousness-of.html

    I greatly appreciate your intention to be a Berean. 10,000 theologians CAN be wrong :)

    Congratulations again on the birth of your new baby girl!

    Blessings,
    Terry


Leave a Reply

  • Resources

  • Sanctified Blogs